My husband's initial biopsy path report is below... how can his Clark Level be VI but also have a Path Stage of T1a? What does this mean? (We have our first appt with the surg onco doc on Monday, and getting through this weekend is not going to be easy.)
Thickness: 1.0 mm
Clark's Level: IV
Growth Phase: Vertical
Ulceration: Not Identified
Mitotic Rate: <1/mm2
Angiolymphatic Invasion: Not Identified
Features of Regression: Not Identified
Lymphocytic Host Response: Non-Brisk
Pathologic Stage: T1a
Atypical Melanocytes are present within the epidermis and the papillary and reticular dermis. There is confluent melanocytic proliferation at the dejunction. Atypical spindle melanocytic proliferation is seen within deep dermis along with fibroplasia. Speail immunohistochemical stains melan A and S-100 helps to identify melanocytes and outline their distribution. Melana stain demonstrates pagetoid proliferation of melanocytes. Multiple levels are examined.
The lesion extends to the base of the specimen. Reexcision for clear margins is recommended.