Just got my husbands pathology report from his LND today, and I am curious what this means: "No areas of unequivocal capsular invation were demonstrated." That sounds like a good thing. Anyone know what "capsular invasion" is or if that tells us anything important?
Sorry if this is a dumb question or if I'm over-analyzing things. I just want to understand everything about it that I can.
5 of 28 nodes were positive. Amelanotic (same as primary 2 years ago) Currently Stage IIIC. He's on the road to recovery and looking forward to life as an NED-er again!